I am new to this site so forgive me if I am doing this wrong. I worked as a supervisor for a big manufacturing company for 3 years. Back about 3 months ago the company announced that they were changing the 401k retirement, and the employee's would be fully vested after 2 years starting Jan.1, 2008. Well luck have it I was fired on Dec. 10, 2007, 2 1/2 weeks before the policy changed. I had never had a disiplinary action nor had I ever been wrote up for anything. On the day they called be into the office they said I was not performing my job duties as described in the handbook and I was gone. I was paid my 180 hours of vacation that I had not taken but lost the 160 hours of sick leave. You see I had not used any of either this year and none of the sick leave in 3 years I was maxed out on both. My question is, since I was paid my vacation pay didn't I technically work for the company until after Jan. 1, 2008 and therefore be entitled to all of my retirement???