Here are a couple questions that I'd like to ask. Thanks for your opinion!
I am a fairly new partner in a physician group that has exposure to providing services for therapeutic abortions. The majority of more senior physicians in the group have excused themselves from providing these services based upon religious belief. Because I do not associate myself with any religion, it has been assumed that will provide ancillary support for therapeutic abortions despite my known personal objections. Do religious beliefs automatically receive higher recognition over non-religious beliefs in terms of discrimination?
Secondly, can a case be made for discrimination if I do not receive the same compensation as someone else objecting for religious reasons, simply because my personal non-religious beliefs are not officially part of a religion?
Keep in mind that none of this is stipulated in my contract, nor was it brought up in the interview process.
I am a fairly new partner in a physician group that has exposure to providing services for therapeutic abortions. The majority of more senior physicians in the group have excused themselves from providing these services based upon religious belief. Because I do not associate myself with any religion, it has been assumed that will provide ancillary support for therapeutic abortions despite my known personal objections. Do religious beliefs automatically receive higher recognition over non-religious beliefs in terms of discrimination?
Secondly, can a case be made for discrimination if I do not receive the same compensation as someone else objecting for religious reasons, simply because my personal non-religious beliefs are not officially part of a religion?
Keep in mind that none of this is stipulated in my contract, nor was it brought up in the interview process.