Ayelen Gonzalez
New Member
- Jurisdiction
- Ohio
Hello, I've trying to find what the federal and state provisions are for this type of events, but I've had no luck. I really hope you guys can help me with this.
About 2 months ago my husband was involved in a "minor fender bender" with the company's truck - a carpet cleaning company. The accident was caused by a privately-owned vehicle that was performing a right turn on an icy, slippery road at the same time that my husband was performing a left turn - after stopping at his stop sign. The privately-owned vehicle accidentally slipped into the side of the company's truck while turning due to the icy condition of the road.
Naturally, my husband contacted the headquarters to advise about the recent accident - as per company's protocol - and, soon enough, his supervisor got to the location to take care of the factual aspects of the accident.
At that moment, there was no doubt that my husband was exempt of any possible claim for negligence, according to the assessment of his supervisor. It is fair to mention that the cleaning company has a high regard for my husband due to his impeccable work and performance.
However, 2 days ago his supervisor came up to him with a copy of the bill for the company's truck repairs saying, "You are responsible for the deductible amount of $1,000", and "We will work out payments with you per check".
Using common sense, I find this practice to be very unfair for the employee - whom, by definition, is always in disadvantage before the employer. If the employee is to be held liable for damages to the company's property, why would I even want to use their property to work for them? I mean, accidents happen and they should be contemplated as business expenses - unless, of course, it is proven that the employee was acting willfully with "gross negligence", which is not the case here and they know that.
On the other hand, I am aware that my husband signed the employment contract in which there is a clause that requires the employee's agreement to take responsibility for potential damage, regardless of the cause of damage.
Does this clause become null and void as they extend the employee's liability beyond the legal limits? Again, common sense tells me that internal contractual agreements should only add to the standard regulations and never take away.
I just need some advice to help me figure out if I am correct in thinking that my husband is not actually liable to pay for this accident. Any help is much appreciated!
About 2 months ago my husband was involved in a "minor fender bender" with the company's truck - a carpet cleaning company. The accident was caused by a privately-owned vehicle that was performing a right turn on an icy, slippery road at the same time that my husband was performing a left turn - after stopping at his stop sign. The privately-owned vehicle accidentally slipped into the side of the company's truck while turning due to the icy condition of the road.
Naturally, my husband contacted the headquarters to advise about the recent accident - as per company's protocol - and, soon enough, his supervisor got to the location to take care of the factual aspects of the accident.
At that moment, there was no doubt that my husband was exempt of any possible claim for negligence, according to the assessment of his supervisor. It is fair to mention that the cleaning company has a high regard for my husband due to his impeccable work and performance.
However, 2 days ago his supervisor came up to him with a copy of the bill for the company's truck repairs saying, "You are responsible for the deductible amount of $1,000", and "We will work out payments with you per check".
Using common sense, I find this practice to be very unfair for the employee - whom, by definition, is always in disadvantage before the employer. If the employee is to be held liable for damages to the company's property, why would I even want to use their property to work for them? I mean, accidents happen and they should be contemplated as business expenses - unless, of course, it is proven that the employee was acting willfully with "gross negligence", which is not the case here and they know that.
On the other hand, I am aware that my husband signed the employment contract in which there is a clause that requires the employee's agreement to take responsibility for potential damage, regardless of the cause of damage.
Does this clause become null and void as they extend the employee's liability beyond the legal limits? Again, common sense tells me that internal contractual agreements should only add to the standard regulations and never take away.
I just need some advice to help me figure out if I am correct in thinking that my husband is not actually liable to pay for this accident. Any help is much appreciated!
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