I have 2 outstanding judgments for credit cards. I am in the process of selling a home that I lived in for 1 year, 8 months. My mom is actually the owner of the home...she is the holder of the mortgage. I am only on title. What I need to know is if the judgments will have to be paid in order to provide clear title for the buyer. This home was my primary residence, but it was not homesteaded for tax purposes. I am in Florida. Thanks!