I'm looking to get remarried as soon as possible. The problem is, I got married in 1998 to a Serbian citizen in California (I am a U.S. citizen). The license was issued BUT then a mark was made on it before it got sent to the recorder. The recorder sent it back saying it was invalid and could not be recorded, and no marriage certificate was ever issued.
In 2000, we moved to Australia where de facto marriages are recognized, and so never followed up with correcting the license or getting a marriage certificate. However we separated in Nov 2005, and declared the de facto marriage to be over to the Australian gov't, so according to them we are no longer married.
BUT, my questions are:
1) Was my original marriage in the US actually valid -- enough to have to file for divorce over?
2) Assuming it was, where would the jurisdiction on this be? Neither of us are residents of CA and I currently live in Beijing, CHINA while he still lives in Australia.
3) Even if suitable jurisdiction is found, how can it be possible to get a divorce on a marriage that is not on record? BTW, the "union" did not result in any children, property, or marriage certificate, so the divorce should be uncontested.
I really hope someone can shed some light on this issue, thank you.
All the best,
trtlbaby
P.S. I am assuming my US marriage is valid on the basis of a telephone consultation with a CA divorce lawyer who looked up the statute which seemed to say (I think) that 3 things are required for a valid marriage, among which only "issuing" (as opposed to "recording") of a license is listed. (But I do not know this for sure.) In my case, a validated license was issued by the judge who performed the ceremony, but this license was altered before being sent to the recorder, which rendered it invalid.
Hopefully this will make some sense to you. It's a very weird situation, I know.
In 2000, we moved to Australia where de facto marriages are recognized, and so never followed up with correcting the license or getting a marriage certificate. However we separated in Nov 2005, and declared the de facto marriage to be over to the Australian gov't, so according to them we are no longer married.
BUT, my questions are:
1) Was my original marriage in the US actually valid -- enough to have to file for divorce over?
2) Assuming it was, where would the jurisdiction on this be? Neither of us are residents of CA and I currently live in Beijing, CHINA while he still lives in Australia.
3) Even if suitable jurisdiction is found, how can it be possible to get a divorce on a marriage that is not on record? BTW, the "union" did not result in any children, property, or marriage certificate, so the divorce should be uncontested.
I really hope someone can shed some light on this issue, thank you.
All the best,
trtlbaby
P.S. I am assuming my US marriage is valid on the basis of a telephone consultation with a CA divorce lawyer who looked up the statute which seemed to say (I think) that 3 things are required for a valid marriage, among which only "issuing" (as opposed to "recording") of a license is listed. (But I do not know this for sure.) In my case, a validated license was issued by the judge who performed the ceremony, but this license was altered before being sent to the recorder, which rendered it invalid.
Hopefully this will make some sense to you. It's a very weird situation, I know.
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