I am needing details in the following:
My ex and I have agreement in place. The marital assets must be split and the marital debt satisfied before the divorce is final. He has stock in his name alone that he must split with me and I think he finally realized that he would have to pay tax on the money he has to give to me. So why are seemingly BOTH our lawyers saying a stipulation is to be added when it was not part of the final agreement? Do I and should I agree to the stipulation that I pay the tax on the money he is giving me? Is this standard practice? Please advise..
My ex and I have agreement in place. The marital assets must be split and the marital debt satisfied before the divorce is final. He has stock in his name alone that he must split with me and I think he finally realized that he would have to pay tax on the money he has to give to me. So why are seemingly BOTH our lawyers saying a stipulation is to be added when it was not part of the final agreement? Do I and should I agree to the stipulation that I pay the tax on the money he is giving me? Is this standard practice? Please advise..
