I work for a company that is "employee friendly" when it comes to FMLA. A coworker of mine recently told me that one of my company's practices is illegal. They grant FMLA, but they allow the employee to use their paid leave (vacation/sick days), and then after that is exhausted, then they begin FMLA (rather than paid leave running concurrently with FMLA). For example, an employee has 50 vacation days accrued and goes to the doctor on January 1 and is granted leave on January 1. The letter to the employee states "Your request for medical leave beginning January 1, XXXX has been received. Since unpaid FMLA begins once all available sick and personal days are exhausted, your FMLA leave beings March 12, XXXX  through June 1, XXXX". Is this illegal? Or is it just extremely generous?