In our divorce agreement in 2003 I gave my Ex 30% of my retirement pay with
"no consideration for disability until I am classified as 80% disabled" now I am being told (government agency)that they need a clarifying order with a fixed amount or a percentage for my retirement to be paid to her (I thought it already was). Her attorney has rewritten it so that she will receive 30% no matter what my disability is. Under our original agreement it was understood that if I ever received a rating of 80% disabled she would not receive any money (see quote above, or is this open to interpretation), where do I go from here? she is trying to set up the garnishment now even though I have 1-2 more years before I am retired. I have no problem giving her the money (it was worth it) and she will already receive additional money because I am well over 20 years of service. If this goes to court will it be a simple matter, will it cost allot, do I need to address this now or can it wait?. is the original wording that confusing? Thank You
"no consideration for disability until I am classified as 80% disabled" now I am being told (government agency)that they need a clarifying order with a fixed amount or a percentage for my retirement to be paid to her (I thought it already was). Her attorney has rewritten it so that she will receive 30% no matter what my disability is. Under our original agreement it was understood that if I ever received a rating of 80% disabled she would not receive any money (see quote above, or is this open to interpretation), where do I go from here? she is trying to set up the garnishment now even though I have 1-2 more years before I am retired. I have no problem giving her the money (it was worth it) and she will already receive additional money because I am well over 20 years of service. If this goes to court will it be a simple matter, will it cost allot, do I need to address this now or can it wait?. is the original wording that confusing? Thank You