Ex wife was awarded the house on the decree, even though the house was purchased before marriage and was only in my name. She has made several late payments and is now saying she is not going to pay for it at all. This is all being reported to my credit. I was wondering if legally I can hold her accountable for the house payments. Our decree says that she shall assume and pay the indebtedness and shall indemnify me harmless from any obligation, liability, or responsibility whatsoever.
What is my next step? Do I have any grounds to stand on if I go back to court?
Thank you!
What is my next step? Do I have any grounds to stand on if I go back to court?
Thank you!