Proserpina
Moderator
Legally, in Texas, it's not wrong.
(That's really only the point I'm trying to make)
(That's really only the point I'm trying to make)
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Legally, in Texas, it's not wrong.
(That's really only the point I'm trying to make)
Here's one example:
§21.11 – Indecency With a Child (Under 17 years of age)
A person commits an offense if, with a child not his spouse, he:
1. Engages in sexual contact with the child, OR
2. Causes the child to engage in sexual contact, OR
3. Exposes himself to the child with intent to arouse or gratify any person, OR
4. Causes the child to expose with intent to arouse or gratify any person.
It is an affirmative defense to prosecution that the actor:
1. Is not more than three years older than the victim, AND
2. Is of the opposite sex, AND
3. Did not use force, threat of force, or duress against victim, AND
4. Was not required to register for life as a sex offender.
Offenses 1 and 2 are second-degree felonies; offenses 3 and 4 are third-degree felonies.
Third-degree felony: No more than 10 years or less than 2 years.
What is an affirmative defense?
affirmative defense (noun) when a defendant files an answer, in addition to denying some or all of the allegations, he/she can state what are called "affirmative defenses." These defenses can contain allegations, take the initiative against statements of facts contrary to those stated in the original complaint against them, and include various defenses based on legal principles. Many of these defenses fall into the "boilerplate" (stated in routine, non-specific language) category, but one or more of the defenses may help the defendant.
You didn't read my link, did you?
The law has changed in Texas - as of THIS SUMMER.
Hence the use of your Big Red Font, I suppose?
Understood.
Wink.
Sigh.
Child rapist isn't quite accurate.
Pedophile may be more accurate.
Pedophile is also incorrect.
But I believe you already know that.