brwnydgrl12
New Member
The seller of this house accepted payment in way of repairs to the home as well as partial payment of taxes. Then, would not sign written contract, yet again verbally agreed to sell of property. Later, tried to change the sales agreement to a rental without a signed lease agreement. Yet, again verbally agreed to a sales agreement. Then, finally filing an eviction which has been appealed due to it was never a rental agreement. The seller has stated in court, as well as acknowledged in writing there was a verbal agreement to sell the home to me. Can the seller be bound to the verbal contract since they accepted "payments"? If not, what about the payments already paid based on the verbal sales agreement?