I have a question. 4 years ago, I moved into a house in NC, renting the top floor while the owner used the lower floor. At first, this was just by verbal agreement. However, last December, we both signed a lease that I THOUGHT guaranteed me until 2007.
The wording goes like this:
Commencing on the 1st day of December 2005 and monthly thereafter until the 29th day of June, 2007, at which time this agreement is terminated.
Does this lease bind the landlord until the 29th day of June, 2007 if I haven't broken any terms of the lease? Or does the "monthly thereafter" part somehow nix that out?
The landlord has given me a 30 day notice to vacate, and I need more time than that! I haven't broken any terms or conditions of the lease. Is this legal?
Thanks for any help you can give.
Clover
The wording goes like this:
Commencing on the 1st day of December 2005 and monthly thereafter until the 29th day of June, 2007, at which time this agreement is terminated.
Does this lease bind the landlord until the 29th day of June, 2007 if I haven't broken any terms of the lease? Or does the "monthly thereafter" part somehow nix that out?
The landlord has given me a 30 day notice to vacate, and I need more time than that! I haven't broken any terms or conditions of the lease. Is this legal?
Thanks for any help you can give.
Clover