I am signing a lease for renting a house in Michigan. When my agent got me the lease copy back the signature is by John Doe. The Sheet 1 of the lease agreement says Lanlord: Jane Doe
I have been told (and I verified from city public records) that Jane and John are indeed the joint owners of the property (my agent tells me husband and wife).
Q1. Is it acceptable to have the lease agreement like this.
Q2. Is it OK if we add John Doe on the lease agreement Lanlord portion and have him initial the change.
Q3. Do I absolutely need both persons signature to make the agreement legal?
I hope I am not making a mountain out of a mole hill. My agent says it is OK as is. I am being told that the wife is in hospital.
I just do not want to walk in a situation where I later found out that they may not have an agreement among themselves for leasing the property for rent?
It is a one-year lease.
Please advise.
TK
I have been told (and I verified from city public records) that Jane and John are indeed the joint owners of the property (my agent tells me husband and wife).
Q1. Is it acceptable to have the lease agreement like this.
Q2. Is it OK if we add John Doe on the lease agreement Lanlord portion and have him initial the change.
Q3. Do I absolutely need both persons signature to make the agreement legal?
I hope I am not making a mountain out of a mole hill. My agent says it is OK as is. I am being told that the wife is in hospital.
I just do not want to walk in a situation where I later found out that they may not have an agreement among themselves for leasing the property for rent?
It is a one-year lease.
Please advise.
TK