charlienlaura
New Member
My wife purchased a home while with an ex. She purchased the home with her name only on the mortgage and paid it off quickly. While this mortgage was outstanding, she was married and the mortgage remained in her name exclusively. We are in NC by the way. Now comes the crazyness... She never had her ex added to the deed. She and he had mutual debt that they consulted his parents on and an agreement arose that the parents would buy the home (while the couple continued to live there) in order to help them take care of their debt. The ex commenced to use his fathers credit card to pay off all of his debt and told my wife he had paid hers as well.Not true,less than 5,000 was paid and the rest remained. The parents came down several months later to handle the sale of the house and it became a men only situation. When the father spoke of the deed the ex had "Had himself added to it". So the father and son did the transaction .Very shortly after my wife left this situation craziness ensued and she found through a check of her credit that her debt had not been paid and she has still not received any monies from the "sale" of her home. Her ex presented her with paperwork showing that they were never legally married. So what is a person to do in this situation? If they were never married was he adding himself to the deed even a legal move,and would any part of this situation be considered legal? Is this a situation where an attorney should be employed with the intent to sue?
I realize the story is a bit long as well as probably a bit hard to follow but any replies would be most appreciated as at this time my wife has basically been frauded out of a home that she purchased.
I realize the story is a bit long as well as probably a bit hard to follow but any replies would be most appreciated as at this time my wife has basically been frauded out of a home that she purchased.
