I got divorced and allowed my ex to remain in the house if she pays the mortgage on time all the time.
What was the date of entry of the final divorce decree? I interpret your statement about what you "allowed" to mean that you and your ex negotiated a settlement agreement, one of the terms of which was that she would have exclusive possession of the marital residence and the obligation to pay the mortgage timely and in full, and that the court adopted your settlement agreement as part of the divorce decree. Correct?
Given that title is only in your name, why did you agree to this?
Is she paying the mortgage timely and in full.
she said she would refinance the house when she builds up her credit which was 3 years ago. There is nothing in the divorce papers that tells her when she must refinance. It only says, once she sells, I get half. Is there some type of acceptable deadline to when she needs to refinance the house into her name?
Apparently not given your statement that "[t]here is nothing in the divorce papers that tells her when she must refinance." Does the divorce decree even mention an obligation to refinance?
So, now since we've been divorced for 3 + years does she still hold the meaning of marriage property or does that expire at some time?
Huh?
Does that mean I can refinance my house without her consent to get my half of the equity because it is my house?
I'm not sure what "that" refers to, and we obviously have no possible way of knowing whether you have the ability to refi the mortgage. That said, why do you think refinancing would allow you "to get [your] half of the equity"?
Among the things you can do are the following:
1. Speak with your ex-wife about whatever result you want to occur and see if she agrees.
2. If your ex-wife won't acquiesce to your wishes, speak with the attorney who represented you in the divorce about your options.
P.S. Your post has all the earmarks of someone who didn't have an attorney during the divorce - probably because you and your ex agreed on everything and you wanted to save a few bucks. You may now end up spending 5-10x as much to fix things than if you'd retained a lawyer in the first place. Of course, I could be completely wrong about this.
I'll assume for the moment that there is nothing in the divorce decree about her continued occupancy. If so, she is your tenant.
If that assumption is correct (and I hope for your sake it is), then I agree with this, and you can disregard what I wrote above.
At the very least you will owe her half the equity that existed in the house at the time of divorce.
That depends entirely on what the divorce decree says. No way to know if this is at all correct.