I have a non compete, non solicitation agreement, which by the way is far too broad in scope and geography. They are trying to get a TRO, which I can't see how they will be able to be successful with. The question I have is, I have just noticed that both myself and my HR at the time, signed but neither one of us dated it. It seems very interesting to me, very fishy. Does the non dating of the document give me any kind of argument in relation to that specifically?