My wife and I had agreed with our landlord to let us out our lease early. We were renting a house in Texas. At the time, we agreed to pay our regular rent for December (and we did). The landlord wanted us to pay rent for January and February although we moved in mid-December 2006. He said that if he got someone in the house quickly, he would "discount" February. He also mentioned he would keep our deposit. My wife was then laid off in January and is currently seeking employment. That has changed our financial picture dramatically. The landlord rented the house in mid-January. So technically, he is only out of rent for the first two weeks in January. We paid for all of December although we moved mid-month. We left the house in good condition. The landlord is not threatening legal action for the full amounts due under the lease, but again he has new tenants. My question is this: can the landlord now demand rent for the full lease agreement even though he already has new tenants. No back rent is owed. These are only "fees" and/or "additional leasing payments" he wanted as a settlement to let us out of our lease and for his administrative costs.
Thanks, Onion1
Thanks, Onion1