I am planning a divorce. My husband, age 49, is already retired and collecting a defined benefit pension. All of the information that I can find on valuation assumes that the person with the pension is not yet retired, and the complicated computation includes an actuarial estimate of the years until retirement. As my husband is already retired, I assume that we do not need to estimate the years until retirement, and that the calculation becomes a regular "present value of an annuity" calculation based on some census statistic of the average remaining lifespan of a 49 year old male and an arbitrary interest rate. Am I correct? Also, for legal purposes, who provides the value of the pension? The pension administrator? Or some independent party?
Thanks!
Thanks!
