Please Help ASAP

[hockey1041]

Hey everyone. I really need some help here. My sister has recently been contacted saying that she owe's over $5,000 on a vehicle in which she was a co-signer with her ex-husband. They are saying that her ex has nothing, so they are coming after her. After the divorce she had to file for bankruptcy.

I guess my question is why after 2 and a half years is this coming out?

The vehicle was supposedly sold by the ex-husband. Shouldn't the money he got for selling it go towards what is owed?

Any help you have would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

 

[bryan]

I would question how he was able to sell it without a title. THe lein holder would have had to sign over the title before it could get transfered to the new owner. If he "sold" it without a title transfer then it does not legally belong to the new owner.

Also was the title just in his name or hers as well? If her name is on the title she can go and retrieve the vehicle since there was never a legal sale. I would say then turn it over to the lein holder. If they can get anythign at auction then they would apply that to the balance and she would owe less.