In April (at 5 months pregnant), I was notified by my employer that my position was being eliminated due to budget issues. Fortunately, a financial representative at my firm offered to keep me on board as his assistant. I've since been working for him at half my salary, three days a week.
The events surrounding my lay off were a little strange. A woman who was hired after me kept her position with the firm. She had been working independently for one of the firm's representatives for the past six or seven years, but she was only brought on the firm's payroll in December.
Naturally, I started to wonder if my pregnancy played a role in the event, but didn't want to automatically pull the discrimination card. When I informed my supervisors of my pregnancy, I was told that the firm had zero policy on maternity leave, as none of their employees had ever become pregnant while working for them.
Since May 1st, I've been working for the rep that kept me on as his assistant, but I work in the same office amongst all of the same people. Numerous times I've been asked to answer phones when other employees are in meetings or busy with other tasks, I've been asked to proofread a document, and most recently I was asked to change my schedule around so that there is coverage in the office while full time firm employees take vacation days. (I've been documenting all of the work I've been doing for the firm - unpaid).
I am only supposed to be assisting the representative that pays my salary, so I know that this is wrong in a general sense. I just wasn't sure of the legality of it all.
The situation as a whole is very suspicious to me. I have a feeling that it got a bit personal. Part of me wonders if they were driven by their lack of maternity leave policy. Part of me questions another incident that would be difficult to prove. (I was told by a friend, who is also friendly with the supervisor who handles the firm's HR, that the HR rep was upset that I didn't tell her I was pregnant sooner. Meanwhile, she was told when I was 11 weeks - plenty early.)
Thoughts? Any input would be greatly appreciated.
The events surrounding my lay off were a little strange. A woman who was hired after me kept her position with the firm. She had been working independently for one of the firm's representatives for the past six or seven years, but she was only brought on the firm's payroll in December.
Naturally, I started to wonder if my pregnancy played a role in the event, but didn't want to automatically pull the discrimination card. When I informed my supervisors of my pregnancy, I was told that the firm had zero policy on maternity leave, as none of their employees had ever become pregnant while working for them.
Since May 1st, I've been working for the rep that kept me on as his assistant, but I work in the same office amongst all of the same people. Numerous times I've been asked to answer phones when other employees are in meetings or busy with other tasks, I've been asked to proofread a document, and most recently I was asked to change my schedule around so that there is coverage in the office while full time firm employees take vacation days. (I've been documenting all of the work I've been doing for the firm - unpaid).
I am only supposed to be assisting the representative that pays my salary, so I know that this is wrong in a general sense. I just wasn't sure of the legality of it all.
The situation as a whole is very suspicious to me. I have a feeling that it got a bit personal. Part of me wonders if they were driven by their lack of maternity leave policy. Part of me questions another incident that would be difficult to prove. (I was told by a friend, who is also friendly with the supervisor who handles the firm's HR, that the HR rep was upset that I didn't tell her I was pregnant sooner. Meanwhile, she was told when I was 11 weeks - plenty early.)
Thoughts? Any input would be greatly appreciated.
