My brother got divorced 4 years ago in September this year. His ex wife has been living in the house according to the agreement. According to the decree, 4 years after the dissolution of marriage, the wife has first "go" at buying him out of his portion of the home. If she cannot do so, he has the chance to buy her out. If neither can buy the other out the following 4 years, the house must get listed for sale to the public.
Here is where it gets vague. In the decree..there is nothing that says that anything has to be in place on that 4 year anniversary. There is no time limit on when she has to buy him out by..
What I am trying to say is...if she turns around on the 4 year anniversary and says she wants to buy him out...it almost sounds like she has 4 more years to sit on it before doing anything about it like get her financing in order. Can this be right? Is this all open to interpretation?
Does the date in September really mean anything if nothing has to happen on that date?
Here is where it gets vague. In the decree..there is nothing that says that anything has to be in place on that 4 year anniversary. There is no time limit on when she has to buy him out by..
What I am trying to say is...if she turns around on the 4 year anniversary and says she wants to buy him out...it almost sounds like she has 4 more years to sit on it before doing anything about it like get her financing in order. Can this be right? Is this all open to interpretation?
Does the date in September really mean anything if nothing has to happen on that date?