- Jurisdiction
- Illinois
Hello,
This message is a request for information on over-turning a conviction in the state of Illinois. I have multiple knowing culpability crime convictions in my background, but I'll focus on the felony one most of all. I recently posted a question on Avvo.com requesting how to make knowing culpability laws unconstitutional. If anyone here is an expert in law, I think keeping in mind that there isn't an argument a person can appeal to support the claim that he or she is 100% certain of something unless sufficiency has been met.
I was convicted in 2019 for knowingly attempting to disarm a peace officer (a felony). I have arguments that I am thinking about making to the prosecutor to request that my convictions be set aside. I don't have any money, so I can't afford an attorney. I've been presuming that if I write a letter or e-mail to the prosecutor, then the prosecutor might motion for my charges to be dismissed.
With the criminal charge, one of the first things I mentioned to my attorney was that I did not know anyone to be a peace officer. I didn't "know, know" anyone to be a peace officer. In other words, I was not 100% certain that anyone was a peace officer. I made various arguments to my defense attorney about skepticism, epistemology, and the such. I even made arguments that I couldn't have known anyone to be a peace officer because I wasn't in control of payroll of the people alleging to be peace officers, etc.. I also made what's called "the dream argument," such that I can't be certain whether or not I was dreaming at the time of events, in that one can't ever really discern between reality and a very vivid dream. For what I recall, I also argued that people could impersonate peace officers, thus all who look like peace officers are not peace officers.
Despite those claiming to have been peace officers have been uniformed, I didn't have 100% certainty of anyone being a peace officer.
The last plea deal I got (was told about by my defense attorney) for the charge was not guilty by reason of insanity. I was a skeptic proclaiming reasons I didn't know anyone to be a peace officer nor any object to be a gun. The charge requires that I knew various things, and I didn't KNOW (have 100% certainty of) those various things, such as knowing that I was removing a gun from a holster and that the gun belonged to a peace officer.
As I had my reasons for denying that I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer, I didn't feel that it was appropriate to take the insanity plea and thought that the charge could be beat at trial. However, trial didn't go well, and I was sentenced to prison. I think the whole process was bunk and that my attorney misrepresented me.
I have spent time studying what's called the Münchhausen trilemma. I think I can use the Münchhausen trilemma to argue how I didn't knowingly attempt to disarm a peace officer. In general, the trilemma argues that there are three ways to make an argument: Through a dogmatic argument, through an infinite regress argument, or through circular reasoning.
Here is a link to a Wikipedia page about it: Münchhausen trilemma - Wikipedia
In relation to my conviction, I didn't have a sufficient argument to appeal to in order to claim that I knew I was attempting to disarm a peace officer.
For instance, I couldn't sufficiently appeal to a dogmatic argument claiming that I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer because I didn't have infallible authority to support that claim that I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer. I presume infallible authority is what enables someone to sufficiently make a dogmatic argument to support a claim rather than a claim being conjecture.
My authority wasn't infallible to argue things such as, (1) knowing anyone to be a peace officer, (2) knowing any object to be a gun, and (3) knowing that I was attempting something at the time of alleged events. I didn't KNOW. At no time in the police report did anyone claim that I had infallible authority to support a claim that I knew any one of the above things.
If the police report had stated that I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer because I was an infallible authority on such, then I grasp how someone might think at some time during events with alleged officers that I knew to myself that I was attempting to disarm a peace officer. However, the police report never stated such.
Furthermore, I didn't appeal to an infinite regress argument to claim that I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer. An infinite regress argument uses an infinite chain of premises to support a claim. It's my presumption that such infinite regress argument would be infallible in its nature if it establishes a claim as irrefutable. Relative to the allegations against me, I didn't use an infinite chain of premises to establish me knowing (1) anyone to be a peace officer, (2) any object to be a gun, and (3) that I was attempting anything. The police report doesn't state that I had an infinite regress argument that I appealed to in order to know to myself that I had attempted to disarm a peace officer or had knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer.
The police report never claimed that I had appealed to a sufficient infinite regress argument to know to myself that I attempted to disarm a peace officer at some point in time.
I didn't use circular reasoning, either, to claim to myself that I had knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer. For instance, I never once thought to myself, "I am knowingly attempting to disarm a peace officer because I am knowingly attempting to disarm a peace officer."
I never once had sufficient circular reasoning to appeal to in order to claim that I was or had knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer. It is presumed sufficient circular reasoning would be acceptable to the common public as reasonable in supporting a claim.
The police report never claimed that I used sufficient circular reasoning to know to myself that I was attempting to disarm a peace officer at some point in time.
So, the police report never stated that I had appealed to a sufficient (1) dogmatic argument, (2) infinite regress argument, or (3) circular reasoning to know to myself that I was attempting to disarm a peace officer at some point in time.
However, generalizations were made that because of my behavior and the way the officers were dressed that I knew one or more persons to be a peace officer and that I had knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer.
I don't know if it's possible for anyone to ever have a sufficient infinite regress argument. My presumption has been that if the prosecutor is seeking evidence of absence of the crime, the police report and testimony from the police officers would show that no one had observed me having a sufficient argument to know onto myself that I had attempted to disarm a peace officer at some point in time.
In terms of being certain whether or not I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer, the prosecutor would have to appeal to a sufficient dogmatic argument, infinite regress argument, or circular reasoning to make the claim that I had.
For instance, for the prosecutor to claim with certainty with a dogmatic argument that I had knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer, the prosecutor would have to claim that she knows that I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer because she is an infallible authority on such. If the prosecutor were to use an infinite regress argument, she would have an irrefutable argument that uses an infinite chain of premises that supports the claim that she knows that I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer. I think if the prosecutor uses circular reasoning to claim that she is certain that I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer, somewhere along the chain of premises, she would be re-iterating the claim as a premise (which I don't think would lead to a sufficient argument).
I think that knowing culpability laws are bunk because there exist no sufficient dogmatic, infinite regress, nor circular reasoning arguments a person can make to claim he or she knows or has knowingly done something. It seems to me that unless police are claiming that that a person had appealed to a sufficient argument to support a claim of knowing culpability, then the whole thing is a fishing expedition for a conviction based on something that doesn't exist in the first place, which is a sufficient argument to support a claim of knowledge.
Do you think my arguments as to how I didn't know that I was attempting to disarm a peace officer is understandable?
Have I made sense to any of you about what I mean in relation to making sufficient arguments to make a claim of certainty relative to the Münchhausen trilemma?
Do you think that if I write the prosecutor with a request to set aside the conviction based on information I've written here that the prosecutor will agree to set aside the conviction?
This message is a request for information on over-turning a conviction in the state of Illinois. I have multiple knowing culpability crime convictions in my background, but I'll focus on the felony one most of all. I recently posted a question on Avvo.com requesting how to make knowing culpability laws unconstitutional. If anyone here is an expert in law, I think keeping in mind that there isn't an argument a person can appeal to support the claim that he or she is 100% certain of something unless sufficiency has been met.
I was convicted in 2019 for knowingly attempting to disarm a peace officer (a felony). I have arguments that I am thinking about making to the prosecutor to request that my convictions be set aside. I don't have any money, so I can't afford an attorney. I've been presuming that if I write a letter or e-mail to the prosecutor, then the prosecutor might motion for my charges to be dismissed.
With the criminal charge, one of the first things I mentioned to my attorney was that I did not know anyone to be a peace officer. I didn't "know, know" anyone to be a peace officer. In other words, I was not 100% certain that anyone was a peace officer. I made various arguments to my defense attorney about skepticism, epistemology, and the such. I even made arguments that I couldn't have known anyone to be a peace officer because I wasn't in control of payroll of the people alleging to be peace officers, etc.. I also made what's called "the dream argument," such that I can't be certain whether or not I was dreaming at the time of events, in that one can't ever really discern between reality and a very vivid dream. For what I recall, I also argued that people could impersonate peace officers, thus all who look like peace officers are not peace officers.
Despite those claiming to have been peace officers have been uniformed, I didn't have 100% certainty of anyone being a peace officer.
The last plea deal I got (was told about by my defense attorney) for the charge was not guilty by reason of insanity. I was a skeptic proclaiming reasons I didn't know anyone to be a peace officer nor any object to be a gun. The charge requires that I knew various things, and I didn't KNOW (have 100% certainty of) those various things, such as knowing that I was removing a gun from a holster and that the gun belonged to a peace officer.
As I had my reasons for denying that I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer, I didn't feel that it was appropriate to take the insanity plea and thought that the charge could be beat at trial. However, trial didn't go well, and I was sentenced to prison. I think the whole process was bunk and that my attorney misrepresented me.
I have spent time studying what's called the Münchhausen trilemma. I think I can use the Münchhausen trilemma to argue how I didn't knowingly attempt to disarm a peace officer. In general, the trilemma argues that there are three ways to make an argument: Through a dogmatic argument, through an infinite regress argument, or through circular reasoning.
Here is a link to a Wikipedia page about it: Münchhausen trilemma - Wikipedia
In relation to my conviction, I didn't have a sufficient argument to appeal to in order to claim that I knew I was attempting to disarm a peace officer.
For instance, I couldn't sufficiently appeal to a dogmatic argument claiming that I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer because I didn't have infallible authority to support that claim that I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer. I presume infallible authority is what enables someone to sufficiently make a dogmatic argument to support a claim rather than a claim being conjecture.
My authority wasn't infallible to argue things such as, (1) knowing anyone to be a peace officer, (2) knowing any object to be a gun, and (3) knowing that I was attempting something at the time of alleged events. I didn't KNOW. At no time in the police report did anyone claim that I had infallible authority to support a claim that I knew any one of the above things.
If the police report had stated that I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer because I was an infallible authority on such, then I grasp how someone might think at some time during events with alleged officers that I knew to myself that I was attempting to disarm a peace officer. However, the police report never stated such.
Furthermore, I didn't appeal to an infinite regress argument to claim that I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer. An infinite regress argument uses an infinite chain of premises to support a claim. It's my presumption that such infinite regress argument would be infallible in its nature if it establishes a claim as irrefutable. Relative to the allegations against me, I didn't use an infinite chain of premises to establish me knowing (1) anyone to be a peace officer, (2) any object to be a gun, and (3) that I was attempting anything. The police report doesn't state that I had an infinite regress argument that I appealed to in order to know to myself that I had attempted to disarm a peace officer or had knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer.
The police report never claimed that I had appealed to a sufficient infinite regress argument to know to myself that I attempted to disarm a peace officer at some point in time.
I didn't use circular reasoning, either, to claim to myself that I had knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer. For instance, I never once thought to myself, "I am knowingly attempting to disarm a peace officer because I am knowingly attempting to disarm a peace officer."
I never once had sufficient circular reasoning to appeal to in order to claim that I was or had knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer. It is presumed sufficient circular reasoning would be acceptable to the common public as reasonable in supporting a claim.
The police report never claimed that I used sufficient circular reasoning to know to myself that I was attempting to disarm a peace officer at some point in time.
So, the police report never stated that I had appealed to a sufficient (1) dogmatic argument, (2) infinite regress argument, or (3) circular reasoning to know to myself that I was attempting to disarm a peace officer at some point in time.
However, generalizations were made that because of my behavior and the way the officers were dressed that I knew one or more persons to be a peace officer and that I had knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer.
I don't know if it's possible for anyone to ever have a sufficient infinite regress argument. My presumption has been that if the prosecutor is seeking evidence of absence of the crime, the police report and testimony from the police officers would show that no one had observed me having a sufficient argument to know onto myself that I had attempted to disarm a peace officer at some point in time.
In terms of being certain whether or not I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer, the prosecutor would have to appeal to a sufficient dogmatic argument, infinite regress argument, or circular reasoning to make the claim that I had.
For instance, for the prosecutor to claim with certainty with a dogmatic argument that I had knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer, the prosecutor would have to claim that she knows that I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer because she is an infallible authority on such. If the prosecutor were to use an infinite regress argument, she would have an irrefutable argument that uses an infinite chain of premises that supports the claim that she knows that I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer. I think if the prosecutor uses circular reasoning to claim that she is certain that I knowingly attempted to disarm a peace officer, somewhere along the chain of premises, she would be re-iterating the claim as a premise (which I don't think would lead to a sufficient argument).
I think that knowing culpability laws are bunk because there exist no sufficient dogmatic, infinite regress, nor circular reasoning arguments a person can make to claim he or she knows or has knowingly done something. It seems to me that unless police are claiming that that a person had appealed to a sufficient argument to support a claim of knowing culpability, then the whole thing is a fishing expedition for a conviction based on something that doesn't exist in the first place, which is a sufficient argument to support a claim of knowledge.
Do you think my arguments as to how I didn't know that I was attempting to disarm a peace officer is understandable?
Have I made sense to any of you about what I mean in relation to making sufficient arguments to make a claim of certainty relative to the Münchhausen trilemma?
Do you think that if I write the prosecutor with a request to set aside the conviction based on information I've written here that the prosecutor will agree to set aside the conviction?
Last edited: